Stevens Immunology-Serology Practice Test

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• Bence Jones proteins are identical to which immunoglobulin chains?
• Which describes coding for immunoglobulin molecules?
• In direct fluorescent assays, what is typically labeled with a fluorescent tag?
• Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an effective immunogen?
• Which feature is associated with anaphylaxis?
• Which acute-phase reactant helps prevent formation of peroxides and free radicals that may damage tissues?
• Which HLA antigen would be expected to elicit an HLA antibody response in a kidney transplant recipient with the following HLA type: A*01,03; B*07,14; C*01,04N; DRB1*16,07?
• Direct hemagglutination occurs in which of the following scenarios?
• Which assay specifically measures the functional activity of the alternative complement pathway?
• Which factor can make interpretation of immunofluorescent assay results challenging?
• The chronic nature of parasitic infections is caused by the host's
• Which of the following precursors are target cells for IL-3?
• Compared with a host's response to the mumps virus, overcoming a parasitic infection is more difficult for the host because of which characteristics of parasites?
• Based on ABO compatibility, which donor would be most appropriate for a renal transplant candidate with ABO type O?
• Which statement describes a true function of the complement system?
• What is the best use of serum tumor markers?
• Which of the following is true of the amplification loop in complement activation?
• Factor H acts by competing with which of the following for the same binding site?
• Adoptive immunity is best illustrated by which scenario?
• Which term describes immunity generated within the individual's own body in response to infection or vaccination?
• The most significant defense against fungal infections is
• Which autoantibody is most specific for systemic lupus erythematosus?
• Which represents the main function of IgD?
• Heterophile antibodies are routinely detected by their reaction with which of the following?
• Which statement about NK cells is true?
• All of the following are ways that bacteria can evade host defenses except
• Which of the following is indicative of a parasitic infection?
• Which combination of markers is commonly elevated in both pregnancy and testicular germ cell tumors?
• Suppose a 30-year-old man was found to be a suitable donor for a kidney transplant to his younger sister. This transplant would be an example of a(an)
• Which would be characteristic of a T-independent antigen?
• Colony-stimulating factors are given to cancer patients primarily to?
• A blood cell with reddish staining granules and the ability to kill large parasites describes which cell type?
• If crossed lines result in an Ouchterlony immunodiffusion reaction with antigens 1 and 2, what does this indicate?
• Which of the following is characteristic of complement components?
• Which statement describes a general characteristic of hypersensitivity reactions?
• Typing of RBCs with reagent antiserum represents which type of reaction?
• A decline in CA-125 after surgical removal of ovarian cancer most likely indicates what?
• Which vaccine type requires strict cold chain to maintain viability during storage?
• Which feature differentiates B cells from T cells?
• Which best describes the law of mass action?
• Which statement best describes adaptive immunity?
• Adjuvants act by which of the following mechanisms?
• A deficiency of C1 inhibitor primarily predisposes to which condition?
• How do heterogeneous assays differ from homogeneous assays?
• TIL therapy uses cells derived from which source?
• Innate immune responses thought to be involved in defense against tumors include
• Which of the following combinations of bands would represent a positive Western blot for HIV antibody?
• In fluorescence polarization immunoassay, which statement is true?
• Which immunoglobulin class cross the placenta?
• Which agent would be most effective in preventing bystander lysis of red blood cells?
• Which factors can lead normal cells to become malignant?
• Which statement best characterizes adaptive immunity?
• IL-10 acts as an antagonist to which cytokine?
• Which graft recipient scenario does not carry a risk for graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)?
• In the ovarian cancer CA-125 scenario, which conclusion is most supported by the CA-125 trends after surgery and chemotherapy?
• Which cytokine is associated with promoting differentiation of T cells to the Th1 subset?
• Which of these are found on a mature B cell?
• Which of the following is characteristic of an indirect enzyme immunoassay?
• What is the immune phenomenon associated with the Arthus reaction?
• Absence of IL-4 would most likely reduce the production or presence of which cell type?
• A newborn suspected of having a congenital viral infection should be tested for virus-specific antibodies of which class(es)?
• A significant decrease in the gamma band on serum protein electrophoresis most likely indicates which condition?
• Which of the following describes a mechanism used to achieve peripheral tolerance?
• Which cell type serves as the primary antigen-presenting cell for naive T cell activation?
• Which option correctly defines epitope spreading in immunology?
• What is an advantage of enzyme immunoassay over radioimmunoassay (RIA)?
• In an indirect immunofluorescent assay, what would be the outcome of an improper wash after the antibody-enzyme conjugate is added?
• Which statement best describes IFN-γ's effect on antigen presentation?
• Which assay is used to detect cryptococcal polysaccharide capsule antigen in patient serum or CSF?
• Which immunoglobulin class is most closely associated with anaphylaxis?
• The method of choice for detecting VZV infection in immunocompromised hosts is which test?
• Which chromosome carries the genes for HLA class II molecules in humans?
• Which statement best describes the role of CR2 on cell membranes?
• In a heterogeneous enzyme immunoassay, what is a key procedural feature distinguishing it from a homogeneous assay?
• In the thymus, positive selection of immature T cells is based upon recognition of which of the following?
• In HIV testing, p24 antigen is described as:
• Which statement is most accurate regarding the detection of anti-fungal antibodies during acute infection?
• Which test would give the least reliable results in a 2-month-old infant?
• In type II hypersensitivity, antibodies target which of the following?
• Class I MHC antigens E and G serve which function?
• What is the purpose of the invariant chain in antigen processing associated with class II MHC molecules?
• A fluorescent substance is best described as which?
• Which of the following would represent a double-negative thymocyte?
• Which statement describes antigen-independent maturation of B lymphocytes?
• Which statement best describes the role of helper T cells (CD4+ T cells) in the immune response?
• Which antibody is not produced in response to hepatitis B vaccination?
• The decrease in T-cell numbers in HIV-infected individuals is caused by
• Which autoantibodies are strongly associated with granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener's granulomatosis)?
• HAMA stands for
• What does a higher total IgE level imply regarding allergy diagnosis?
• Which marker could be elevated in nonmalignant liver disease?
• Which immunity type directly relies on memory cell formation to provide long-term protection?
• What is the primary function of the secretory component of IgA?
• Which assay would you recommend to test for chromosomal rearrangements such as the BCR/ABL translocation seen in CML?
• A lack of IL-4 may result in which of the following effects?
• A 25-year-old woman with suspected SLE has a speckled pattern on an ANA screen. Which action should be taken next?
• In a young woman with intermittent diarrhea and iron deficiency anemia, which laboratory test is most appropriate to evaluate for celiac disease?
• Which of the following characteristics describes a capture or sandwich enzyme assay?
• Precipitation differs from agglutination in which way?
• To screen for celiac disease in a patient with iron deficiency anemia, which test is preferred?
• Antigenic groups identified by different sets of antibodies reacting in a similar manner to standard cell lines are best described by
• What is an advantage of the attenuated vaccine form?
• A hapten is best described as which of the following?
• Which organism is a non-dimorphic fungus commonly associated with concentrated bird droppings and can cause meningitis in immunocompromised individuals?
• Direct fluorescent assays are best described by which statement?
• Which feature characterizes innate immunity?
• Which immunity type may provide protection immediately after exposure but wanes without prior exposure?
• All of the following are true of the recognition unit in the classical pathway except
• Which autoantibodies are most strongly linked to Wegener's granulomatosis?
• HAMA are
• Which best describes the role of an anaphylatoxin?
• How many antigen-binding sites does a typical IgM molecule have?
• Immunoglobulins consisting of a mouse-derived variable region with a human-derived constant region are known as
• Which statement describes the end-point method of RID?
• Which tumor marker is most commonly used to monitor ovarian cancer treatment?
• Factor H regulates the alternative pathway by competing with which molecule for the same binding site on C3b?
• Which two HIV envelope glycoproteins are commonly detected in HIV serology as markers?
• Acute hepatitis B infection is best indicated by which serologic combination?
• Which scenario best illustrates adoptive immunity?
• Which statement accurately describes a function of Factor H?
• Which primary rejection mechanism can present within days after transplant and is suggested by early thrombosis with no cellular infiltration?
• CA125 is used to monitor which cancer?
• Which HLA allele differs from A*02:01:02 by a synonymous nucleotide substitution?
• All of the following represent functions of the complement system except
• Which cell is the most potent phagocytic cell in the tissue?
• In a particle-counting immunoassay using reagent antibody attached to latex particles, if the particle count in solution is very low, what does this mean about the presence of patient antigen?
• Which product is typically used for passive protection against a specific toxin after exposure?
• The role of CTLs in immune responses against viruses is to
• Viruses can escape immune defenses by
• Normal flora defend the host by which mechanism?
• In fungal serology, which statement best reflects immune defense against fungal infections?
• Which of the following would be associated with increased IgE production?
• What is the primary function of CR2 on B cells?
• A 27-year-old man from Ohio with AIDS, chest pains, severe headaches, and a hobby of spelunking; sputum culture and spinal tap positive for a yeast-like fungus. These findings are most consistent with infection by
• The drug zidovudine is an example of a
• Viruses can escape immune defenses by which mechanisms?
• Which of the following initiates the lectin pathway by binding to carbohydrate patterns on pathogens?
• The presence of anti-H antibodies indicates which of the following?
• Which individual would most likely mount the strongest immune response to a bacterial infection?
• Which molecule is most effective in preventing bystander lysis of RBCs during complement activation?
• What is the immune mechanism involved in type III hypersensitivity reactions?
• A patient who has developed immunity to a viral infection would be expected to have which of the following serology results?
• Which best characterizes the secondary immune response?
• In a heterogeneous enzyme immunoassay, if the patient sample produces more color than the highest positive control, what action should be taken?
• Suppose an individual develops antibodies in response to a streptococcal pharyngitis infection. This is an example of
• Which of the following reasons make serological identification of a current infection with Helicobacter pylori difficult?
• Which statement best describes a lymph node?
• Which process underlies the generation of antibody diversity by rearranging gene segments?
• False-positive results in cryptococcal latex agglutination testing can be caused by
• Helicobacter pylori is associated with an increased risk of which condition?
• What term describes a transplant between genetically identical individuals?
• How does the structure of IgE differ from that of IgG?
• Which statement best differentiates innate immunity from adaptive immunity?
• How do cytotoxic T lymphocytes kill target cells?
• Which statement best describes endotoxin in bacterial physiology?
• ASO titer negative, streptozyme positive with appropriate controls—what can you conclude from these test results?
• Papain digestion of an IgG molecule results in which of the following?
• Which statement best summarizes tumor development via immunoediting?
• Which acute-phase reactant is most closely associated with binding free hemoglobin and limiting oxidative damage?
• Exotoxins are best described as substances that
• Which assay assesses the functional activity of the classical pathway?
• Which is an example of a tumor-specific antigen?
• Which cytokine acts to promote differentiation of T cells to the Th1 subclass?
• Which WBC is capable of further differentiation in tissues?
• Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of B cells?
• Which term describes immunity achieved without the host generating its own response, often by transfer of antibodies?
• AFP and hCG elevations occur in which conditions?
• A Fab fragment consists of which combination of chains?
• Which of the following plays an important role as an external defense mechanism?
• Where does antigen-independent maturation of B lymphocytes take place?
• The characteristic laboratory finding in HIV infection is:
• In type I hypersensitivity, which cell type is primarily responsible for releasing mediators that cause symptoms?
• Extracellular antigens are typically presented to CD4+ T cells by which mechanism?
• Which technique represents a single-diffusion reaction?
• The cells that Metchnikoff first observed are associated with which phenomenon?
• Which disease is characterized by autoimmune-mediated demyelination of the central nervous system?
• Helicobacter pylori is positive for which enzyme used in diagnostic testing?
• In indirect allorecognition, which mechanism describes how donor-derived peptides are presented to recipient T cells?
• IFN-α and IFN-β differ from IFN-γ in which of the following ways?
• All of the following are characteristics of streptococcal M proteins except
• In septic shock caused by Gram-negative infection, which cytokine is most likely to contribute to fever, hypotension, and DIC?
• Which statement describes mature B cell surface markers?
• What is a major characteristic of adoptive immunotherapy?
• In the process of inflammation, which is NOT a characteristic?
• Which statement correctly pairs MHC class I with its T cell partner?
• Which of the following is referred to as C3 convertase?
• Which MHC molecule is necessary for antigen recognition by CD4+ T cells?
• Which statement is true regarding laboratory testing for mumps?
• In toxoplasmosis serology, low avidity IgG indicates a more recent infection. Which option reflects this concept?
• What is the function of granzymes released by cytotoxic T cells?
• Which marker is most specific for acute hepatitis A infection?
• Reactions to latex are caused by
• The autoimmune target in Graves disease is the receptor for which hormone?
• Antibodies to which of the following viral antigens are usually the first to be detected in HIV infection?
• Which statement accurately describes competitive binding assays?
• What is the major function of T regulatory cells?
• Measurement of CRP levels can be used for all of the following except which?
• Which acute-phase reactant deficiency may contribute to premature emphysema in a smoker?
• Which antibody is best at agglutination and complement fixation?
• Which assay format is least likely to be used for rapid fungal serology testing due to limited ease of use?
• Fourth-generation HIV tests differ from earlier generations by detecting antibodies and which viral component?
• A positive result on a screening test for HTLV-I antibody should be
• A limiting factor in reliably detecting anti-fungal antibodies in an acute infection is
• In a noncompetitive enzyme immunoassay, if a negative control shows color, which is a possible explanation?
• The antigenic component of the hepatitis B vaccine is best described as
• Antibody testing for Rocky Mountain spotted fever may not be helpful for which reason?
• Which statement about lymph nodes is true?
• Which cytokine is primarily involved in initiating the innate immune response and inflammation?
• Where do lymphocytes mainly contact antigens?
• Which marker characterizes helper T cells (T helper/inducer)?
• In Ouchterlny immunodiffusion, what does a spur at the intersection of two lines indicate about the relationship of the two antigens?
• Which statement best describes flow-through immunoassays?
• What is the role of Western blot in HIV testing?
• Which type of immunity is represented by skin, lactic acid secretions, stomach acidity, and the motion of cilia?
• Kidney allograft loss from intravascular thrombosis without cellular infiltration five days after transplant may indicate which primary rejection mechanism?
• Which antibody best protects mucosal surfaces?
• Immunity can be defined as
• Which cells present antigen to CD4+ T helper cells via MHC class II?
• What factor(s) influence the effectiveness of a person's immune response to a vaccine?
• Adoptive immunity can be achieved using cells expanded outside the body before infusion; this involves which process?
• Which finding would be significant in Graves disease?
• Which co-receptor is required for CD4 positive T cells to recognize antigen presented by HLA class II?
• In which zone might an antibody-screening test be false negative?
• Epitope spreading refers to which of the following?
• Which test is currently recommended by the CDC to confirm a positive screening test result for HIV infection?
• Which of the following correctly describes reverse passive agglutination?
• Which pair represents two different immunoglobulin allotypes?
• Immunity produced by transferring immune cells from a donor to a recipient is best described as what?
• In the classical pathway, C3 convertase is formed by which of the following?
• What does a skin prick test assess?
• How does measurement of turbidity differ from nephelometry?
• An individual with hepatomegaly and jaundice has HBsAg positive, IgM anti-HBc positive, IgM anti-HAV negative, and anti-HCV negative. This serologic pattern supports which diagnosis?
• Which of the following statements regarding Helicobacter pylori is not true?
• Which organ is considered a primary lymphoid organ where lymphocytes mature?
• All of the following are true of IgE except that it
• Which of the following cytokines is also known as the T-cell growth factor?
• Which statement is true about class II MHC (HLA) antigens?
• Th17 cells affect the innate immune response by inducing production of which cytokines?
• IL-3 acts on which hematopoietic precursors?
• Which of the following would be considered an organ-specific autoimmune disease?
• Which form of immunity requires the host to generate a response and provides long-term protection?
• Which term describes the overall strength of binding when multiple antigen–antibody interactions occur between an antibody and a multivalent antigen?
• The structure of a typical immunoglobulin consists of how many light and heavy chains?
• What best defines adoptive immunity?
• Which would be the best assay to measure a specific cytokine?
• Which would be the most effective immunogen among the following?
• Which marker is found on the T cell subset known as helpers?
• Which donor would be expected to elicit a positive mixed lymphocyte reaction in lymphocytes from a patient who has the HLA-DRB1*01:01, 01:03 alleles?
• After completing the hepatitis B vaccination series in the absence of prior infection, which serologic marker would you expect to be negative?
• Where are all undifferentiated lymphocytes produced?
• To determine a cold agglutinin titer
• An oral vaccine may be advantageous over an injectable vaccine for a pathogen because
• A pregnant woman exposed to a child with rubella shows a rise from 1:8 to 1:128 three weeks later with no symptoms. The change is most indicative of which condition?
• False positives may be observed in latex agglutination tests for the capsular antigen of Cryptococcus neoformans because of
• Hemolytic uremic syndrome is a condition that can be associated with which of the following?
• In immunoassays, which statement is true regarding reading fluorescence-based assays?
• Which type of immunity is typically temporary and can occur via maternal antibodies passing to the fetus?
• False-negative test results in a laboratory test for HIV antibody may occur because of
• Which molecule generates peptide fragments for MHC class I presentation in the cytosol?
• When does genetic rearrangement for the antibody light chains occur during B-cell development?
• A lack of C1-INH might result in which of the following conditions?
• Which best characterizes the membrane attack complex (MAC)?
• Opsonins function to
• Alloantigens are most relevant in which event?
• Which of the following best describes the principle of the indirect immunofluorescence assay for detection of antibodies produced in Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
• The presence of both IgM and IgG antibody in toxoplasmosis infections suggests that the infection
• Which achievement is attributed to Pasteur?
• In a primary follicle, which B cell population is present?
• Which method applies antibody directly to the gel rather than placing it in a trough?
• In a homogeneous enzyme immunoassay, which statement is true?
• A heterophile antigen is one that:
• The ability of an individual to resist infection by means of normally present body functions is called
• Which statement about rate nephelometry is true?
• Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ?
• An individual recovering from a bacterial infection tests positive for antibodies to a protein normally found in the cytoplasm of this bacterium. Which statement is true?
• Inflammation features include the migration of white blood cells. Which statement about this change is most accurate?
• In congenital toxoplasmosis, which class of antibodies is the most sensitive in detecting infection?
• For a patient with an antibody deficiency, which preparation would you recommend?
• When soluble antigens diffuse in a gel that contains antibody, in which zone does optimum precipitation occur?
• The role of the secretory component of IgA is best described as
• Which statement about MHC class I molecules is true?
• Which statement best describes an epitope?
• Which of the following is produced by antigen-stimulated T cells?
• Which of the following are light chains of antibody molecules?
• All of the following are associated with type I hypersensitivity except
• For which of the following tests is a lack of agglutination a positive reaction?
• Clonal deletion of T cells during maturation primarily serves which purpose?
• Which of the following refers to the force of attraction between an antibody and a single antigenic determinant?
• Anti-CCP antibodies are specifically associated with which autoimmune disease?
• Which component polymerizes to form the transmembrane pore of the membrane attack complex?
• An autocrine effect occurs when a cell secretes a signal that:
• Lysozyme is best described as which type of antimicrobial agent?
• Reactions involving IgG may need to be enhanced for which reason?
• The typical structure of an immunoglobulin includes two light chains and two heavy chains.
• Which cell type is most effective at presenting antigen to naive T cells in tissues?
• In reverse passive agglutination, which component is covalently bound to the carrier particle?
• A hapten requires a carrier to become immunogenic. Which option correctly states this concept?
• Characteristics of a bacterial capsule include which of the following?
• In a direct (forward) donor-recipient crossmatch, which reagents are used?
• When a child inherits one set of six HLA genes together from one parent, this is called a(n)
• SLE can be distinguished from rheumatoid arthritis on the basis of which finding?
• Which of the following effects can be attributed to IL-1?
• Which statement about Toll-like receptors is true according to the material?
• Which statement correctly distinguishes affinity from avidity?
• Phenotyping for HLA class II antigens requires B lymphocytes because they express HLA class II antigens. Why is this the correct basis for phenotyping?
• IgM anti-rubella antibodies in the serum from an infant with a rash suggests which diagnosis?
• Which statement about NK cell activation is true?
• Which of the following explains the difference between type II and type III hypersensitivity reactions?
• HIV virions bind to host T cells through which receptors?
• What term describes a transplantation of tissue between genetically different individuals of the same species?
• Which describes the properties of a toxoid?
• Which statement about indirect enzyme immunoassay is false?
• Active immunity is best described as:
• What is the purpose of HAT medium in monoclonal antibody production?
• What is a distinguishing feature of a pre-B cell?
• Which marker is used in immunohistochemical staining to identify tumors of epithelial origin?
• Clinical manifestations of fungal-related illness include
• Which type of allograft rejection is characterized by vascular and parenchymal injury with lymphocyte infiltrates?
• Zidovudine targets which HIV enzyme?
• Ouchterlony diffusion is best described as which type of immunodiffusion method?
• The cause of shingles is which virus?
• Quantitative tests for HCV RNA are used to:
• All of the following are protective mechanisms against bacteria except
• Why are most tumor markers not used to screen the general population?
• What is the main function of T cells in the immune response?
• Which statement about innate immune responses to tumors is true?
• The P24 antigen is a component of the HIV core.
• HLA molecules A, B, and C belong to which MHC class?
• A young woman developed red, itchy papules on her wrist 2 days after wearing a new bracelet. This reaction was caused by
• CA 19-9 is used to monitor which cancer?
• Which best explains the difference between immunogens and antigens?
• Toxoids are produced by detoxifying toxins, typically using chemical treatment that preserves antigenicity.
• Which technique combines electrophoresis with immunodiffusion to identify antibodies?
• A woman with breast cancer is treated with a monoclonal antibody to HER2. This is an example of
• The CH50 test measures which of the following?
• Which immunoglobulin class is commonly found as a pentamer in serum?
• Streptococcal M protein is a virulence factor for which group of bacteria?
• The conjugate used in the fourth-generation HIV ELISA consists of which components?
• If a single IgM molecule can bind many more antigens than a molecule of IgG, which of the following is higher?
• Which of the following is considered to be a nonsuppurative complication of streptococcal infection?
• Which MHC class presents antigen to CD4+ T cells?
• Class II MHC molecules are recognized by which immune cells?
• Which of the following can be attributed to the clonal selection hypothesis of antibody formation?
• Which of the following is indicative of a recent infection with Toxoplasma gondii?
• In a precipitation reaction, how can the ideal antibody be characterized?
• IgM contains which structural component in its polymer form?
• Which of the following applies to acute rheumatic fever?
• Which therapy exemplifies adoptive immunity by infusing patient-derived immune cells after expansion?
• Destruction of the myelin sheath of axons caused by the presence of antibody is characteristic of which disease?
• Mannose-binding protein in the lectin pathway is most similar to which classical pathway component?
• Which method is used to measure an individual complement component rather than the function of a pathway?
• Absence of CR1 receptors on red blood cells would primarily reduce the clearance of immune complexes by which organ?
• Which of the following is a unique characteristic of adaptive immunity?
• Which of the following is not a recommended cancer screening group?
• Which immunosuppressive agent selectively inhibits IL-2 receptor-mediated activation and causes clearance of activated T cells from the circulation?
• Germinal centers are found in which anatomical location?
• The most significant defense against fungal infections is cellular immunity.
• Agglutination of dyed bacterial cells represents which type of reaction?
• Which statement distinguishes CRP action from antibody action?
• Which property is not exhibited by HLA molecules?
• Which statement best describes acute-phase reactants in inflammation?
• Which radial immunodiffusion method is primarily quantitative and relies on the diameter of the precipitin ring to estimate concentration?
• Which combination of T- and B-cell flow cytometric crossmatch results would be expected in a patient with anti-B35 antibodies?
• Which leukocyte is typically the first to arrive at a site of acute infection and is highly phagocytic?
• Which statement about NK cells is true?
• IgM properties: which statement is false?
• Which agent is most significant in the phagolysosome for the elimination of microorganisms?
• Which laboratory finding would not be expected in Graves disease?
• Where does the major portion of antibody production occur?
• Which statement about MHC class I molecules is true?
• The classical complement pathway is activated by which of the following?
• To determine if a patient is allergic to rye grass, which test is best?
• Pathogen recognition receptors act by which of the following?
• M pneumoniae infections are associated with the production of which antibodies?
• Which of the following is not a characteristic of passive immunity?
• Which type of immunity is present from birth and provides immediate, non-specific defense?
• Which of the following would yield a positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT)?
• Which is characteristic of class I MHC molecules?
• In monoclonal antibody production, HAT medium is used to select for hybridomas by:
• Presence of human microbiota (normal flora) defends the host by which mechanism?
• Which type of assay uses a solid phase to capture an antigen with a subsequent labeled detector antibody?
• Selective destruction of Th cells by HIV contributes to immune suppression by which means?
• Which of the following assay formats are increasingly being adopted by clinical laboratories for serological detection of fungal infections because of their ease of use?
• In the indirect immunofluorescence assay for detecting antibodies, which component is labeled with a fluorescent tag to visualize bound antibodies?
• Which cell type expresses HLA class II antigens and is commonly used to phenotype HLA class II status?
• Parasites evade host defenses by which of the following means?
• The serum of an individual who completed all doses of the hepatitis B vaccine should contain which antibody?
• If a tumor marker rises after chemotherapy, which interpretation is most likely?
• Which statement is true regarding HIV antibody testing in infants?
• Which measurements are routinely used to monitor patients with HIV infection undergoing antiretroviral therapy?
• What is the primary purpose of performing a donor-recipient crossmatch before transplantation?
• Which of the following enzymes is used to detect the presence of H pylori infections?
• Which serological test detects the polysaccharide capsule antigen in serum and CSF of patients with suspected Cryptococcus neoformans infection?
• Which statement about CD4+ T cell antigen recognition is accurate?
• Which of the following is a non-dimorphic fungus that is found in concentrated bird droppings and can readily cause meningitis in immunocompromised individuals?
• Humoral immunity refers to which of the following?
• Which option best identifies B cells?
• Which describes a component of humoral immunity?
• What is the structure formed by the fusion of engulfed material with enzymatic granules within a phagocytic cell?
• Which condition would result in HDN?
• Which statement best describes the T-cell receptor for antigen?
• Which statement best describes chemiluminescent assays?
• Antigen receptors on T lymphocytes bind HLA class II plus peptide complexes with the help of which accessory molecule?
• Immunofluorescent assays may be difficult to interpret due to which reasons?
• Which finding would support a diagnosis of drug-induced lupus?
• A cell characterized by a nucleus with two to five lobes, a diameter of 10 to 15 μm, and a large number of neutral staining granules is identified as a(n)
• Which hepatitis virus is transmitted by the fecal-oral route?
• Which of the following would NOT contribute to autoimmunity?
• Which represents an autocrine effect of IL-2?
• Which group is included in PSA screening recommendations?
• Infusion of tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes into a cancer patient demonstrates which type of immunity?
• Which statement is true about IL-12?
• Toll-like receptors (TLRs) are described as which of the following?
• Which antibody is typically the first to appear in a primary immune response?
• Antimitochondrial antibodies are strongly associated with which liver condition?
• Fourth-generation ELISA tests detect which of the following?
• Which therapy is an example of adoptive immunity in cancer treatment?
• Which would result from a lack of TNF?
• Which of the following is typical of the latent stage of HIV infection?
• A direct antiglobulin test (DAT) positive result could indicate the presence of which on red blood cells?
• Which statements apply to rate nephelometry?
• After rubella exposure, when is a fourfold rise in titer most likely to be detected?
• Why might a colony stimulating factor be given to a cancer patient?
• A peripheral pattern of staining of the nucleus on indirect immunofluorescence is caused by which antibody?
• To monitor the course of disease with a tumor marker, which must be true?
• What term describes a transplantation of tissue between different species?
• All of the following describe HIV except
• IgE does not fix complement and is typically found in allergic individuals.
• Agglutination inhibition could best be used for which type of antigens?
• Which of the following indicates the presence of anti- DNase B activity in serum?
• Immunofixation electrophoresis differs from immunoelectrophoresis in which way?
• Which statement about the variable domains of immunoglobulins is true?
• What is the primary function of TAP in antigen processing?
• What does the acronym CD stand for in immunology?
• Which immunoglobulin class is most efficient at initiating the classical complement pathway?
• What was one of the major contributions of Louis Pasteur to vaccine development?
• Which statement best describes the light emission source in chemiluminescent immunoassays?
• What type of cells would be found in a primary follicle?
• Two days after administration of the PPD test, a female health-care worker developed an area of redness and induration 12 mm in size at the injection site. This result means that she has
• Which of the following conclusions can be drawn about a patient whose total IgE level was determined to be 150 IU/mL?
• HIV belongs to which virus family?
• The IgG subclasses differ mainly in
• Which of the following best describes the role of antibodies in type II hypersensitivity reactions?
• A decreased CH50 level with a normal AH50 level indicates a deficiency in which components?
• Which immunoglobulin class is typically found at elevated levels in allergic individuals?
• A recombinant antigen is produced by cloning the gene encoding the antigen and expressing it in another organism.
• When one individual becomes immunized by receiving a series of vaccine injections according to schedule, the resulting protection extends to that individual's nearby contacts. This concept is
• Which pair illustrates allotypic variation within the same subclass?
• Which antibody provides protection to the growing fetus because it is able to cross the placenta?
• Which marker is incorrectly paired with the disease it is used to monitor?
• Pathogen recognition receptors act by recognizing which type of molecules?
• The ability of a single cytokine to alter the expression of several genes is called
• Flow cytometry in a 3-year-old patient shows normal CD4+ T cells and B cells, but low CD8+ T cells. Which type of immunity would be affected?
• Which of the following describes the role of properdin in the alternative pathway?
• CA 15-3 is used to monitor which cancer?
• Which marker is found on helper T cells and is a target for HIV?
• Arthus reaction is a localized form of which hypersensitivity?
• A technologist performs an IIF test for ANCAs and observes intense fluorescent staining of the nuclear lobes of neutrophils. How can this staining be differentiated from a peripheral ANA pattern?
• The term for enhancement of phagocytosis by coating of foreign particles with serum proteins is
• Antimitochondrial antibodies are most strongly associated with which disease?
• The most common means of HIV transmission worldwide is through
• Which cytokine is a major antagonist to IFN-γ?
• Which of the following is true regarding exotoxins and endotoxins?